Re: [Harp-L] shortly chromatic



--- In harp-l-archives@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, Jonathan Ross
<jross38@...> wrote:

> Michael Rubin writes in response to my saying that
IMO you can't or  
> no-one does "play" the diatonic chromatically:
> 
> "...I need to define what I mean
> by "play" in this sense.  Of course, with bending
and overbending you
> can get all the notes, but that's not what I mean. 
I mean that you can
> actually play the piece musically, without
intonation issues, without
> different timbres between altered and natural notes,
essentially that
> you can play any note and have it sound like any
other note, or at close
> enough.  Basically, that nothing sticks out as
particularly different
> from the rest, mostly in terms of intonation and
timbre."

While I fully understand and agree with the point you
are making, (i consider it a fact, actually, not an
opinion) I don't think it's helpful to redefine
"playing chromatically" to your own ends. "Play" and
"chromatically" already have generally accepted
definitions, and by those definitions, Howard Levy
does (as do many others) play the diatonic
chromatically. 

Alot of the arguments against your opinion rest on the
problem of how the terms are defined, and not on the
validity of your point. It would be much more useful
to lay the intonation issues bare and confront them
head-on.

Why not just say that they cannot "play the diatonic
chromatically without intonation issues," or
somethingto that effect? You make your point without
having to fight over definitions.

  --Jp



 
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